Agile Business Analyst (AgileBA) Practice Exam

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• What does the benefits assessment describe?
• AgilePM was launched to address problems of traditional project approaches and the RAD method. Which method does RAD stand for?
• Which three activities are used in the deployment phase to bring the evolving solution into operation?
• What is the purpose of the business Domain Model?
• Which types of tests are identified for iterative development?
• SIPOC stands for which set of terms?
• The business vision describes what the changed business will look like both incrementally and in its final state. Where is this vision documented?
• At the end of the foundations stage how many requirements should you expect to have?
• What is a theme in agile requirements?
• Which is NOT a primary activity in Porter's value chain?
• Projects typically have 4 key aspects that need careful management. What are they?
• What does SRS stand for?
• In which phase is the TOR created?
• What is a technical advisor?
• What artifacts does a use case consist of?
• Which technique helps match internal strengths and external opportunities to develop strategies?
• Who is the owner of the business case?
• Which of the following is NOT a heading on the Lean Canvas?
• What are the four categories of requirements?
• What is the advantage of the combined approach to testing?
• What is a business advisor?
• Who does the Who perspective identify?
• How many headings are in a Lean Canvas?
• In lean thinking, what is the main purpose of a pull system?
• Which artifact defines governance and risk management in DSDM?
• There are 6 phases in the DSDM process. What is the first phase?
• How many Evolutionary Products are defined for the feasibility phase?
• Which heading describes how the product will be brought to customers?
• During Evolutionary Development, the PRL is used to reflect what?
• Which option is NOT a perspective of the Balanced Scorecard?
• In a free-format Timebox, what is true about reviews between Kick-Off and Close-Out?
• Which option best represents the Project Champion?
• Who is the typical budget holder of a workshop?
• During the feasibility phase, how many Evolutionary products and Milestone products are created?
• What is the most powerful means of communication in Agile?
• Must Have requirements should not exceed what percentage of estimated effort?
• Which of the following is NOT a phase in the DSDM process?
• What is an SRS?
• Which of the following is an agile principle?
• Which item is the Milestone Product produced in the feasibility phase?
• During the feasibility phase in Agile, how many requirements are typically recommended?
• What are the two main types of storyboard?
• How many headings does a business/Lean canvas have?
• Which aspect does a scoping diagram emphasize?
• Which form of communication involves feeling, doing, touching, smelling?
• Which of the following is a Porter's value chain support activity?
• What does DSDM stand for?
• Which statement describes the Why modelling perspective?
• Which type of test demonstrates how the evolving solution will function in operational life?
• Which product is created during the deployment phase?
• What does EDUF stand for?
• What are the three aspects identified by the business domain model?
• Which of the following is one of the AgilePM eight principles?
• What are the three types of features in the Kano method?
• Which of the following is NOT one of Porter's Five Forces?
• Which option describes the non-functional requirement category?
• PESTLE stands for which of the following?
• What is the rich picture technique?
• Which model is used to measure organizational performance across multiple perspectives?
• What is the lifecycle that requirements go through?
• Which statement best defines a context/scoping diagram?
• What three role categories are identified within the DSDM Team Model?
• Which statement about Personas is true?
• Which force describes the bargaining power of buyers?
• Which two techniques measure success in business change?
• What is the primary responsibility of the Technical Coordinator?
• What project variables are fixed in Traditional Projects?
• In a DSDM Structured Timebox, in which step is the Timebox plan created?
• What does MoSCoW stand for?
• What is the primary purpose of a User Story Map?
• What does SIPOC map in a process?
• Which of the following is NOT a possible path in the Evolutionary Development phase?
• Which statement is true regarding DSDM and AgilePM?
• In which lifecycle phases would you use the business/Lean canvas?
• Which phase comes after Evolutionary Development in the DSDM lifecycle?
• What are the three activities that make up the deployment phase?
• What is MAD?
• What is the maximum pages that a business canvas/lean canvas should take up?
• How many DSDM Principles are there?
• A Use Case describes which of the following?
• What is DSDM?
• In the DSDM process, which phase checks that the project is technically feasible and the business case is viable?
• What is a disadvantage of the horizontal approach?
• What was the biggest problem with RAD?
• In Kano analysis, which feature category is most likely to prevent product rejection if missing?
• What does it mean for a User Story to be Testable in INVEST?
• Which Agile principle emphasises communication?
• What is the Business Ambassador?
• Which role is described as the servant-leader for the Solution Development Team?
• Impact Mapping helps focus product development on delivering value by answering several questions. Which is one of these questions?
• SIPOC stands for which of the following?
• In the Deming Cycle, what does Check involve?
• How many products are produced during the pre-project phase?
• Which list correctly identifies the three stakeholder categories described?
• What is the primary purpose of the Balanced Scorecard?
• Which statement about the six modelling perspectives' use is correct?
• Which of the following describes one of the Evolutionary Development phase paths?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between the Business Case and Requirements in DSDM?
• What is elicitation?
• In a business domain model, what is a Class?
• What is the purpose of modelling techniques?
• Which of the following is a primary activity in Porter's value chain?
• Explicit knowledge is defined as knowledge that is
• DSDM is also known as AgilePM.
• What are the two descriptions that underpin the ethos of DSDM?
• Which statement about Context/Scoping diagram is true?
• What is a Project Scope?
• Which option is NOT a phase in the Requirements Engineering lifecycle?
• Impact Mapping helps ensure product work is aligned with business goals by mapping outcomes to actions. Which of the following best describes its aim?
• Which statement best describes the Foundation Summary?
• What milestone product is created in the foundations phase?
• Which of the following is a project-level role?
• Which statement correctly describes the order of the Requirements Engineering lifecycle phases?
• What is the Deming Cycle primarily described as?
• What is SAD?
• Which product is produced during the pre-project phase?
• Which statement best describes how a Rich Picture is organized?
• Which statement best describes the Development Approach Definition?
• Which AgilePM principle emphasizes building incrementally from firm foundations?
• Who is typically the Maintainer of the Prioritised Requirements List?
• Which statement best describes working storyboards?
• Which of the following is NOT an Evolutionary Product produced in the feasibility phase?
• Which option correctly expands the RACI acronym?
• What are Multiplicities in the business domain model?
• What does PRL stand for in DSDM?
• What two types of Business Case are identified within the DSDM process?
• What does BDUF stand for?
• What does the 'Structure' element refer to in the McKinsey 7-S framework?
• By the end of Evolutionary Development, approximately how many requirements would you expect the PRL to contain?
• Which of the following is an element of the McKinsey 7-S framework?
• In Porter's Five Forces Analysis, the scenario with outsourced drivers and a price increase would be associated with which force?
• Which approach provides an initial view of the overall solution early in the project?
• Which description best captures a Use Case?
• In which lifecycle phase would you find Modelling and Prototyping used?
• What is the horizontal approach to testing?
• What product is created during deployment?
• What does MUST stand for?
• Which term completes the SMART acronym for objectives?
• What best describes a business process diagram?
• Which statement best describes a free-format Timebox?
• What is the main disadvantage of the vertical approach to testing?
• What is the main aim of the Evolutionary Development phase?
• What are the two types of product (or document) created across the DSDM process lifecycle?
• Impact Mapping helps focus product work on delivering value by answering several questions. Which is one of these questions?
• What is a business case?
• What is SIPOC analysis?
• MAD includes which of the following?
• RASCI adds which role to the RACI model?
• Which document defines the high-level architecture for the solution in a DSDM lifecycle?
• Which technique identifies everything that does not add value from the customer's perspective?
• In AgilePM, which combination of project variables is fixed?
• What is a model?
• What is the persona technique?
• Which statement is true about a Lean Canvas?
• Milestone products are created in a phase to fulfil a particular purpose within the phase and are often associated with governance. Which option describes this correctly?
• What are the two primary prioritisation methods in DSDM?
• Who develops and maintains the business case?
• Tangible resources include which items?
• Which item is a heading on a Business/Lean Canvas?
• What is the second principle of Lean?
• Which DSDM Team Model category is primarily responsible for designing and building the solution?
• TOR stands for and what is it?
• What is DAD?
• What is SWOT analysis used for?
• What is a timebox?
• What is a deliverable?
• Which Agile Manifesto value emphasizes customer collaboration over contract negotiation?
• What does SIPOC stand for in process mapping?
• Which analysis focuses on primary and support activities that add value?
• What is the biggest risk associated with longer timeboxes?
• What does RAD stand for?
• What is the main advantage of the vertical approach to testing?
• What is Specification by Example (SBE)?
• Which AgilePM principle states that you never compromise on quality?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the Balanced Scorecard?
• What does DSDM stand for?
• By which lifecycle phase should the elicitation and analysis of requirements be complete?
• What is the Agile BA's role in the Prioritised Requirements List?
• What is the primary purpose of value stream mapping?
• Which of the following is a component of the Balanced Scorecard?
• Which statement reflects a value from the Agile Manifesto?
• Which option correctly reflects the maximum size of the PRL at the end of the Foundations stage?
• What is the purpose of the Feasibility phase?
• MAD stands for and what does it contain?
• Which technique is used to gain a holistic overview of a business?
• Which is NOT one of the stakeholder categories?
• Which are the 3 knowledge types?
• What is the ideal length for a Timebox?
• In which lifecycle phase would the MUST be formed?
• In INVEST, which attribute is NOT part of the model?
• What does the 'Skills' element refer to in the McKinsey 7-S framework?
• What are the eight Principles of DSDM?
• The power/interest grid categorizes stakeholders by which two dimensions?
• What is a prototype?
• Which statement best describes Evolutionary products?
• Which statement best describes the Team Leader role?
• What is the purpose of maintaining the Prioritised Requirements List in DSDM?
• What do Associations represent in the data model?
• What is the purpose of modelling perspectives?
• Which describes the combined approach to testing?
• In INVEST, what does Estimable mean?
• What does TOWS analysis enable an organization to do?
• What techniques are used to measure the success of implementing change?
• How long should each cycle of Iterative development take?
• What is the McKinsey 7-S technique used for?
• In which phase is the Delivery Plan considered an Evolutionary Product?
• Which type of knowledge is known openly, in a form that can be explained easily in words?
• Which two types of DSDM products are produced across the lifecycle?
• Which heading is used to measure the features of the product?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five principles of Lean thinking?
• In both DSDM structured Timebox and Free-format Timebox, what is the starting activity?
• Which of the following is NOT a Solution Development Role?
• In MoSCoW prioritisation, what is the purpose of delivering the Minimum Usable Subset?
• What does the 'Staff' element refer to in the McKinsey 7-S framework?
• Which item is found on the back of a user story card?
• What is the purpose of the foundations phase (DSDM)?
• In the combined approach, what is the sequence?
• Which four categories are the pillars supporting AgilePM principles?
• What does the business case describe about the changed business?
• What is the purpose of an Impact Map?
• Tacit knowledge is best described as
• In the Deming Cycle, what is the purpose of the Act phase?
• During foundations, which aspects are typically identified?
• DAD stands for and what does it describe?
• The Kano method plots features against two value dimensions. Which are they?
• What is elicitation?
• Evolutionary products develop over time, usually over a number of phases. These may be baselined or versioned more than once during their lifetime. Which statement best describes them?
• What are the 4 categories of TOWS analysis?
• What do the 3Cs stand for?
• Which phase is responsible for managing and documenting requirements?
• Which term is NOT one of the three Cs of a User Story?
• In the Balanced Scorecard, the 'Learning and Growth' perspective focuses on what?
• Which option lists the four pillars of AgilePM correctly?
• What does PRL stand for?
• What characterizes the storyboard technique?
• Which statement best describes the role of the Workshop Facilitator?
• What are the Phases of Agile Project Framework? (In Order)
• What is a scoping diagram?
• What is MoSCoW used for?
• What is the purpose of acceptance criteria on a user story?
• Which role is responsible for ensuring Requirements are aligned to the Business Case?
• Which technique translates strategy into measurable goals and actions in Agile internal analysis?
• AgilePM is based on eight principles that are supported by the four pillars. Which statement is true?
• Which statement is true about a DSDM structured Timebox?
• What are the three activities of the deployment phase?
• Which category is abbreviated as TPRs?
• Who is responsible for requirements prioritisation?
• What is a throwaway prototype, built to test the feasibility of an approach or to try out different options?
• What is a requirement?
• Which role is responsible for leading the team in discovering the gap between the current situation (As Is) and the desired future situation (To Be)?
• Who is the most senior project level role?
• A Balanced Scorecard identifies Critical Success Factors and KPIs in four areas. Which are they?
• Who is the Business Visionary?
• How many phases are in the DSDM process?
• What best describes the customer journey mapping technique?
• What describes the vertical approach to testing?
• What is a primary advantage of the horizontal approach?
• What is the main aim of the deployment phase?
• What happens in the Post-Project phase?
• Which of the following is a Porter’s Five Force?
• Which of the following is an external analysis technique used in agile contexts?
• Which pillar is described as 'People with defined roles and responsibilities'?
• Which statement best describes what SBE requires from stakeholders?
• Which role is responsible for clarifying business detail aspects for the Solution development team?
• In the V-MOST framework, which component represents 'Objectives'?
• What is the purpose of RACI matrices?
• What is a resource audit?
• Which Lean principle focuses on eliminating delays between steps by ensuring smooth progression?
• What percentage should Should Have and Could Have make up?
• What is the purpose of Close Out in a Timebox?
• What are the 3 major senses used for registering information and knowledge?
• Which statement is true about the end of the Foundations stage in relation to the PRL?
• What is a User Story Map?
• AgilePM and RAD: Which method does RAD stand for?
• In the Roles and Responsibilities of Agile, which role can be elected?
• Which statement describes the 'Exciter features' in the Kano method?
• What does PRL stand for in DSDM terminology?
• What is a product vision box typically produced as?
• Which document in the pre-project phase is described as a milestone product and governance product?
• Which heading represents why the product is different and worth buying?
• What does SAD stand for and what is its purpose?
• Intangible or soft competencies include which?
• What is a baseline in project management?
• Which of the following is one of the lean principles?
• Requirements have 3 levels of priority. What are they?
• What is the purpose of the Post-project phase?
• What is a Use Case?
• What is strategic alignment?
• Which two phases of the DSDM process can be merged?
• How would you characterize a Theme?
• Which model is used to measure the success of implementing change?
• Which of the following best describes Iterative development in DSDM?
• Which is one of the three paths in the Evolutionary Development phase?
• Which document defines the development architecture in DSDM?
• What happens in the Deployment phase?
• V-MOST stands for which sequence?
• Which statement about Milestone products is true?